Right-click here for hands. OK, I haven't blogged in a few months, so maybe no one will read this. If any one does, maybe post a comment and let me know what you'd like to see?
Board 2: South opens 1H or 2NT. On values, 2NT looks right, but the bid crowds the auction and I'm reluctant to bid that with such a wealth of slam controls and a good major suit. Over 1H, in standard methods North has just enough for 2D, planning to sign off next round with 3D. For 2/1 Game Force bidders, North must start with 1NT (forcing.)
After 1H-2D, South has trouble showing his shape and strength. Any of 2S, 3C or 3H creates a game-force; 3C looks best as it is always riskier to misrepresent major suit length. A jump to 3NT would suggest 17-19 balanced but that is all too likely to end the bidding. Like most game bids, it's descriptive, not a "shut-out", the problem here is that the hand is too strong. (You must add a point for all four Aces, and the strong suit is also a plus value.) Over 3C North rebids diamonds as planned; now what does South do? Seems like South must bid 3NT after all and North has no reason to bid further. Nine pairs stopped at 3NT.
If North starts with a forcing 1NT, South leaps to 3NT. After a minor suit opening this would suggest a long suit, but as it would be natural to jump in a long major this sequence suggests 19-21 and 5332 or close to it. North counts 10 hcp, subtracts one for no Ace, but can add for the long suit. I'd view North's hand as 5 diamond and one club trick; at 3 points per trick partenr could easily provide the six more needed for slam. With a lack of entries North should aim for 6D rather than 6NT. 4D ought clearly be this sort of hand -- it would be silly to take a game-bid out to a part-score, so 4D should be a natural slam try. South should figure he has everything North could want; if 4NT would be Blackwood, go ahead and bid it so you can follow up with 5NT to show partner all the Aces. If 4NT might be taken as a sign-off over 4D, just leap to 6D. Experts might try 5NT but would that be "Grand Slam Force" or "Pick a Slam" ? Although 6NT and 7D can both make, 6D scores a near top.
If South opens 2NT (the hand is worth about 20.5 at notrump) North's analysis is similar to the 1H-1NT-3NT sequence, with perhaps a bit more thought of reaching grand slam. But does your partnership have an agreed way to show a long minor with slam interest over 2NT? 3S ought to be some sort of minor-suited hand, so perhaps 2NT-3S; 3NT-4D; 4NT (RKCB)- 5D (one key card); 5H (Q ask)-5S or 6D (whichever says "got it"); pass. Even 12 tricks may require some work and it may be useful to set up the hearts with ruffs so 6D still looks best.
An opening spade establishes a trick quickly for the defense and removes a vital entry from dummy. Declarer should counter by hoping hearts are no worse than 4-2: Ace of spades, AK of hearts, ruff a heart high, high diamond, diamond to the Ace, ruff a heart high, pull trumps, low club to the Ace, pitch the losing spade and concede a club. 6NT appears to need a non-spade lead or a squeeze.
Board 4: North opens 1C and East has no convenient bid -- if you double with this sort of hand, what do you do if partner replies in diamonds? If you double and then bid again over diamonds, then you have no way to show a strong hand. However, many players automatically double with opening count, but I've never seen a good explanation of follow-up bidding for that style.
Assuming East passes, what about South? My expectation with such a weak hand is that if I bid, partner is likely to jump. Even if 1C "could be short", it isn't forcing and you certaily can stand clubs. I've always felt pass now and consider bidding later (having limited you values) to be the best approach with weak hands.
After (1C)-pass-(pass), West balances with 1S. His hand could be much weaker so East should proceed with caution. Over North's pass the usual aapproach is for East to mentally transfer a King to partner -- he "borrowed" that for his balancing bid -- and then bid as if responding to an opening bid with three fewer points. So East has a solid game-invitational raise. The normal approach would be to cue-bid 2C -- but you'd better be sure partner won't think that's natural! A simple jump to 3S is probably safest. Back to West -- if he adds that "borrowed" King to his hand he should accept the invitation. So 4S looks like the normal contract but 8 of 13 pairs failed to reach game.
North has no attractive lead. Opposite a weak partner punting with a diamond looks right; the free finesse is one West could take himself. West loses a heart, a club and perhaps another trick (such as a second club if he has to break the suit himself.)
At our table South manufactured a 1D response, West overcalled 1S, North innocently bid a normal-looking 1NT, and East doubled for blood. This marks East with opening bid values but no suit to overcall and a hand unsuitable for a takeout double. Most doubles of notrump should be assumed to be penalty, not takeout, except the double of a 1NT response when your partner passed: (1C)-(1D); (1NT)-dbl would be for takeout, but West's spade overcall changes the equation.
I think South should pull 1NT doubled to 2C, but playing "short club" South was afraid to do so. That's even more reason to pass 1C initially IMO.
No comments:
Post a Comment