(No hand records for team game.)
After Jacoby 2NT:
Partner opens 1S and you hold KJxxx xxx Axx Ax -- nice hand! This is clearly worth forcing to game and so you respond 2NT, the popular Jacoby Forcing Raise, promising 4+ trumps, game values, and generally a balanced hand -- with a side singleton or void you would usually splinter. (Exceptions might include a singleton Ace or King, or a hand too strong for a splinter. 11-14 hcp is a typical agreed range for a splinter.)
Opener replies 3H, showing a small singleton or a void. (I suggest opener not show a singleton Ace or King, as this will cause responder to mis-evaluate any high cards in that suit.) This is the best possible news, as declarer can ruff two losing hearts. In effect opener's bid adds about 5 points to your hand. All the side suits are under control and if partner has the Ace of spades, you can count 4 key cards and with a 10 card fit odds are the Queen of spades will drop (if partner doesn't have it.) But are there 12 tricks? Your hand revalues to around 18 points, which added to partner's presumed 13 value totals 31 -- enough to invite but a bit light to insist on slam. Let's try visualizing -- we expect opener to have at least 11 hcp outside of hearts (the singleton gives partner 13 Goren points, or the hand qualifies under the Rule of 20.) Try Axxxx x KQJx xxx -- 5 trumps, 2 heart ruffs, 4 diamond tricks and one club = 12, and only 10 hcp. Trumps will break 3-0 about 22% of the time, and you can finesse against the Queen in half of those cases, so this looks like an 89% slam. However AQxxxx x KQx Qxxx would have no play, so inviting slam, rather than insisting on it, looks correct. How do you invite?
After opener's singleton-showing rebid, I suggest the following scheme for responder's second bid:
(1) With less than 12 working high card points, sign off at 4 of the agreed suit. "Working points" includes all high cards outside the short suit, plus any high cards in the short suit ignoring the first 2. So today's responder has 12 working points, or maybe 13 for the extra trump. This sign off is not an absolute drop-dead bid (opener could have a huge hand) but warns partner of the duplication of values.
(2) With 15 or more working points and two losers that can be ruffed by opener's singleton, cue-bid your cheapest King or Ace. This announces sufficient values for slam and asks opener to cue-bid the next suit he can control. Once all suits are known to be under control, somone can use 4NT to check on Key cards.
(3) With some wasted values (Queen or King) opposite the singleton but 12-14 working points, responder bids 3NT. This is not a suggestion to play 3NT rather than the known 9-card major suit fit, it simply leaves room for opener to cue-bid with significant extra values.
(4) With little wastage (Ace, Jack or nothing) but less than 15 working points (note the Ace opposite the singleton counts only 2) or lacking two losers to ruff, responder bids 3 spades. Again this invites opener to cue-bid with extras. Today's responding hand falls in this category.
Why does the Ace opposite the singleton only count 2 working points? Although the Ace is a sure trick and you will have no losers in that suit, that Ace does not combine with any other high cards in partner's hand. If you lay out various combinations missing one Ace, you will almost always have more tricks when you are missing the Ace opposite the singleton than any other Ace. The traditional 4 point value of an Ace includes the ability to control a suit (not needed given the singleton) and to promote other high cards (again does not apply opposite a small singleton.)
And so responder bids 3S on today's hand. If opener bids 4S, responder passes; the combined hands lack the strength for 12 tricks. If opener cue-bids 4C, 4D, or 4H (showing a void), responder checks on key cards wih 4NT.
Opener actually holds AQxxx x KJx Kxxx, 13 working points. Slam will usually be good with a combined 27 working points, along with the nine card fit and useful singleton. Taking responder's 3S for 12-14, opener is uncertain about 12 tricks; 3NT asks responder if he had 14 rather than 12. Today's responder has 12 plus a doubleton plus a 5th trump. It's a tossup; there's some chance of a diamond lead, otherwise the slam appears to be about 50%. Either stopping at 4S or bidding 6S would be reasonable; just don't bid up to 5S and chicken out! Once you proceed beyond 4S, you should bid slam unless you are definitely mssing two key cards, one key card plus the Queen, or two quick losers in one suit.
Note on Roman Key Card Blackwood: the goal of RKCB is to stay out of slam if you are missing two Ace, one Ace plus the King or Queen of trumps, or both the King and Queen of trumps. This translates into needing "5 of 6". (You can ignore the Queen with a known 10 card fit.) In order to have "5 of 6", one partner or the other must have 3 key cards or 2+Q. And so with two hands of relatively equal strength, the player with 3+ should be the one to bid 4NT. On today's hand, opener (1+Q) should not bid 4NT, responder (3+Q equivalent) may. But remember the first priority is to decide you have the stuff for 12 tricks: add a minor suit Queen to either of today's hand and bidding the slam would be clear-cut. Knock a point off either hand and stopping at 4S would be equally clear. On today's actual layout you should satisfied with bidding either 4S or 6S.
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